A week ago, I was in agony. I couldn't sit for long periods of time, I was passing razorblades in agony and it looked like a murder had occurred in the toilet bowl. To me, it felt like I had two tears: 1 internal (which was the most painful) and 1 on the opening. Then, a week ago, (after advice from here on what meds to ask for) I went to the GP and was given movicol and rectogesic. I cannot believe the difference, and am passing BMs without pain and gritted teeth, with no blood.
On Monday I went back to the docs, because of the headaches, and was told to perservere until today (so I'd been using it a week) and he gave me some more Proctosedyl ointment, to use from today onwards.
Meanwhile, the appt with the consultant was brought forward from mid-May to today. He was pleased the rectogesic is working, but has prescribed dia-something to use instead (though I can't collect it until a week's time as the hospital pharmacy had run out). He did say, though, that the procto won't work (which entirely agrees with my experience of it) and he has no idea why the gp has given it to me twice, nor why the GP said to stop using the rectogesic after 1 week.

BUT when he examined me, he could find no sign of AF at all. He also did another internal, but still couldn't find anything. He says to continue with the movicol and rectogesic/dia-whatever for 8 weeks, and then I'll be invited back for another appt, and hopefully it will be healed.
So, no botox, and apparently I'm practically healed already. Surely that can't be the case?
