My first posting on this or any other board so be please be patient.
Developed AF last summer. Started as a strong spasm but I did not know what was going on so assumed it was constipation. Ended up at my GP who diagnosed an AF. Did not suffer too badly for the first few months but it kept getting worse. By December, judging from what I subsequently learned from this forum, it was full blown. By this time I was on 2% Diltiazem but it did not seem to be working. I subsequently learned from the Internet a study of prescriptions of Diltiazem in the States concluded that at least half the prescriptions are compounded incorrectly and do not contain the "magical" 2%.
As I spend winters in Mexico I went to a Gastrointernalist there. He recommended warm baths 3 times a day and prescribed Sufrexal Gel. He showed me how to apply it properly, something my previous doctors had not done when prescribing Diltiazem . By now I was suffering pretty badly. No bleeding though. I thought that if I could stop the spasms things might improve.
My partner had received Tramacet several years ago for treatment of muscle spasms in her shoulder as a result of a traffic accident. They were not prescribed to her for pain but for spasms. I thought I would give it a try. Took 1/2 of a 35 mg Tramacet and within an hour the spasm was gone. It started to return several hours later so I took a full 35 mg Tramacetl and the spasm went away for several days. When it tried to return I took another and have not had a spasm since. It has now been a couple of months.
The Gastrointernalist tells me the AF is gone. Just in case he prescribed Angiotrofin which is a gel in a tube, not compounded by a Pharmacist, containing 2% Diltiazem and also a box of Tramacet, which I now carry with me although I have not needed one yet.
Gastrointernalist told me spasms can happen without a fissure. Has me wondering which comes first?